Super 100 CEE Model ExamSuper100 CEESeptember 8, 2026 Welcome to your Super 100 CEE Model Exam Name Email 1. Which sequence represents the commonly taught evolutionary sequence of human ancestors from earlier to later forms? Homo sapiens → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo sapiens → Homo erectus Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Australopithecus None 2. The forelimbs of humans, bats and whales perform different functions but possess a similar basic skeletal plan. This similarity is best explained by: Convergent evolution Divergent evolution Artificial selection Parallel mutation None 3. According to the Oparin-Haldane hypothesis, the primitive Earth was considered favorable for chemical evolution mainly because its atmosphere was: Rich in free oxygen and ozone Reducing and largely devoid of free oxygen Rich in nitrogen and molecular oxygen Similar to the present-day atmosphere None 4. A major distinguishing feature of connective tissue compared with epithelial tissue is: Presence of abundant extracellular matrix Absence of blood vessels in all forms Absence of specialized cells Arrangement exclusively in sheets None 5. The intercalated discs present between cardiac muscle cells are important primarily because they: Prevent communication between adjacent cells Facilitate coordinated contraction of cardiac muscle Convert cardiac muscle into smooth muscle Store calcium outside the cells None 6. The myelin sheath surrounding many nerve fibers is primarily responsible for: Synthesizing neurotransmitters Connecting neurons to muscles Producing cerebrospinal fluid Increasing the speed of nerve impulse conduction None 7. Which epithelium is found in thyroid follicle and germinal epithelium? Simple cuboidal epithelium Simple squamous epithelium Stratified squamous epithelium Columnar epithelium None 8. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? Hydra – Porifera Pheretima – Annelida Taenia – Nematoda Pila – Arthropoda None 9. Sponges possess distinct internal canal systems that maintain continuous water current through ostia. Which sequence shows the correct developmental advancement of canal systems in Porifera? Asconoid → Syconoid → Leuconoid Leuconoid → Syconoid → Asconoid Syconoid → Asconoid → Leuconoid Asconoid → Leuconoid → Syconoid None 10. Phylum Chordata includes organisms that possess specific diagnostic embryonic structures. Which of the following is not a primary feature of Chordata? Dorsal hollow nerve cord Pharyngeal gill slits Notochord Ventral solid nerve cord with paired ganglia None 11. Which of the following is incorrect about Cartilaginous fish? Air bladder absent so they have to swim constantly to avoid sinking 5 to 7 pairs of gills for respiration but without operculum Teeth are modified placoid scales which are backwardly directed In males pelvic fins claspers are absent None 12. Exflagellation takes place in: Cavity of stomach wall of mosquito Wall of stomach of mosquito RBC of man Liver cells of man None 13. The periodic fever associated with malaria is mainly related to: Entry of sporozoites into hepatocytes Rupture of infected erythrocytes Formation of gametocytes in mosquito Development of ookinete in human blood None 14. Earthworm is agriculturally beneficial mainly because its activities: Eliminate all microorganisms from soil Prevent decomposition of organic matter Improve soil aeration and make nutrient-rich vermicompost Reduce soil porosity None 15. In which segment brain of earthworm is found? 3rd segment 4th segment Earthworm has no brain 1st segment None 16. A Bidder’s canal in each kidney of frog: Runs longitudinally in lateral region of kidney Runs longitudinally in medial region of kidney Runs transversely across the width of anterior part of kidney Runs transversely across the width of posterior part of kidney None 17. If the mouth of frog is kept open for some time, it dies because it is unable to: Eat Drink Breath None None 18. Amniocentesis involves obtaining a sample of: Maternal blood from the umbilical artery Cerebrospinal fluid of the fetus Placental tissue and other connective tissue Amniotic fluid surrounding the developing fetus None 19. In sewage treatment, microbial activity is particularly important during biological treatment because microorganisms: Convert all organic matter directly into plastic Decompose organic pollutants and reduce the organic load of sewage Eliminate the need for physical treatment Increase pathogenic microbial populations intentionally None 20. Which vaccine type contains a pathogen that has been weakened so that it generally cannot cause disease in healthy individuals but can stimulate immunity? Live attenuated vaccine Toxoid vaccine Inactivated vaccine Antiserum None 21. Patient presents with sudden onset of profuse, painless watery diarrhea described as “rice-water stool.” The most likely causative organism is: Salmonella typhi Entamoeba histolytica Vibrio cholerae Shigella dysenteriae None 22. The Widal test is used to confirm the diagnosis of which of the following diseases? Malaria Amoebiasis Typhoid fever Tuberculosis None 23. Which of the following is an example of a behavioral adaptation rather than a structural adaptation? Thick fur in polar animals Streamlined body of fish Migration of birds during unfavorable seasons Webbed feet in aquatic birds None 24. Which protected area was established as Nepal's first national park? Sagarmatha National Park Chitwan National Park Rara National Park Langtang National Park None 25. A person has inadequate bile secretion. Which digestive process would be affected most directly? Protein digestion Carbohydrate digestion Emulsification and absorption of fats Absorption of amino acids None 26. Which part of the alimentary canal is primarily responsible for most enzymatic digestion and absorption of nutrients? Stomach Small intestine Large intestine Esophagus None 27. Myopia can be corrected using the spectacles with: Biconcave lens Bifocal lens Convex lens Cylindrical lens None 28. During normal inspiration, which sequence correctly describes the major changes? Diaphragm relaxes -> Thoracic volume decreases -> Pressure decreases Diaphragm relaxes -> Thoracic volume increases -> Air enters lungs Diaphragm contracts -> Thoracic volume decreases -> Pressure decreases Diaphragm contracts -> Thoracic volume increases -> Intrapulmonary pressure decreases None 29. A person suddenly enters a poorly ventilated room where CO2 concentration is relatively high. The increased CO2 in blood is expected to cause: Reduced respiratory activity Complete closure of bronchioles Increased respiratory rate and/or depth Reduced stimulation of the respiratory center None 30. The wall of the left ventricle is considerably thicker than that of the right ventricle. The best explanation is that the left ventricle: Pumps blood through the entire systemic circulation Receives blood directly from the lungs Pumps blood only to the heart itself Contains more deoxygenated blood None 31. During ventricular systole, which event normally occurs? Ventricles relax and fill with blood Atrioventricular valves open Blood flows from ventricles back into atria Semilunar valves open and blood is ejected out of the heart None 32. A dehydrated person secretes more ADH. The major consequence is: Reduced permeability of collecting ducts to water Increased water reabsorption and formation of concentrated urine Increased loss of water through urine Complete inhibition of sodium reabsorption None 33. The glomerulus is located within the: Loop of Henle Collecting duct Bowman's capsule Ureter None 34. Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for higher mental functions such as reasoning, memory and conscious perception? Cerebellum B. Cerebrum Medulla oblongata Hypothalamus None 35. A student suddenly hears a frightening sound and experiences increased heart rate and rapid breathing. Which autonomic response is mainly responsible? Increased parasympathetic activity Increased somatic sensory activity only Decreased sympathetic activity Increased sympathetic activity None 36. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum eventually degenerates. Which consequence contributes directly to menstruation? Sustained increase in progesterone Permanent increase in LH Sudden increase in hCG Fall in progesterone causing degeneration of the endometrium None 37. A person has abnormally low blood calcium. Which hormonal response would help restore calcium concentration? Increased calcitonin secretion Increased parathyroid hormone secretion Increased insulin secretion Decreased parathyroid hormone secretion None 38. An individual develops enlargement of the hands, feet and facial bones after attaining adulthood due to excessive secretion of growth hormone. Which condition is most likely? Acromegaly Gigantism Cretinism Myxedema None 39. A person with normal vision changes focus from a distant object to a nearby object. Which combination is expected during accommodation? Ciliary muscles relax and lens becomes flatter Ciliary muscles contract and lens becomes more convex Ciliary muscles contract and lens becomes flatter Pupil necessarily becomes completely dilated None 40. The main role of the Eustachian tube is to: Detect sound vibrations Equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane Maintain body equilibrium Convert sound into nerve impulses None 41. A patient with severe liver disease develops low plasma albumin. Which function of protein is most affected? Oxygen transport Maintenance of plasma oncotic pressure Digestion of starch Blood clotting None 42. The only non-reducing disaccharide which upon hydrolysis gives: Glucose and glucose Glucose and galactose Glucose and fructose Fructose and fructose None 43. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched? Yeast - Ascomycetes Mucor - Phycomycetes Spirogyra - Chlorophyceae Marchantia - Bryopsida None 44. A virus fails to multiply in a nutrient broth without living cells because it: Lacks enzymes for independent replication Is unable to undergo binary fission Requires oxygen Has a cellulose wall None 45. Arrange the following in increasing sequence of hierarchy: Class, Order, Phylum, Family Phylum, Class, Order, Family Order, Class, Family, Phylum Family, Order, Class, Phylum None 46. Bacteria reproduce rapidly in favorable conditions by binary fission. How do they undergo genetic recombination without true gametic fusion? Mitosis followed by cytokinesis Conjugation, transformation, and transduction Sporangiospore formation and budding Meiotic reduction division followed by fertilization None 47. Reserve food of algae found in sea kelps is: Laminarin starch Mannitol Floridean starch Both A and B None 48. Bryophytes resemble algae in which of the following? Thallus-like plant body, presence of root, and autotrophic nature Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissue, and autotrophic nature Thallus-like plant body, lack of vascular strands, and autotrophic nature Well-differentiated plant body into root, stem, and leaf with autotrophic nature None 49. Gymnosperms like Pinus differ from flowering plants in seed development. Which feature describes the endosperm of Pinus? Triploid, formed after double fertilization Haploid, formed before fertilization Haploid, formed after fertilization Diploid, formed during seed germination None 50. A flower having tetramerous flowers, cruciform corolla and tetradynamous stamens belongs to the family: Solanaceae Fabaceae Brassicaceae Liliaceae None 51. When the plant grows at the apex, a flower develops and checks its growth; then laterally other flowers develop and check the growth too. This type of inflorescence is: Racemose Cymose Corymb Spike None 52. In a grassland, producers trap 18,100 joules of energy. How much energy reaches the secondary consumers according to Lindeman's law? 1,810 J 181 J 18.1 J 1.81 J None 53. Excess fertilizer runoff entering a pond causes rapid algal growth followed by fish mortality. What is this ecological process called? Biomagnification Eutrophication Ecological succession Biological invasion None 54. Which is the correct sequence of succession in a rocky barren area? Moss, lichen, herbs, woody shrubs Moss, lichen, woody shrubs, herbs Lichen, moss, herbs, woody shrubs Lichen, moss, woody shrubs, herbs None 55. In which conservation area are threatened species protected outside their own natural habitat? Botanical garden Hotspots National parks Protected areas None 56. A scientist cultures two types of cells. Cell A has a nucleus, mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, and 80S ribosomes. Cell B lacks a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles but contains circular DNA and 70S ribosomes. Which statement best distinguishes Cell B from Cell A? Cell B contains linear chromosomes Cell B is a prokaryotic cell Cell B performs photosynthesis only Cell B lacks genetic material None 57. Disruption of the nucleolus within a plant cell nucleus primarily impairs which biosynthetic activity? Ribosomal RNA synthesis Steroid hormone and fatty acid synthesis Secretory vesicle packaging Peroxisomal hydrogen peroxide breakdown None 58. Besides giving out secretory vesicles, the Golgi bodies are also concerned with the formation of: Grana of chloroplast Polysaccharides Lysosome Plastids None 59. A pharmaceutical company develops a drug that selectively destroys centrioles in animal cells. Which cellular process would be affected first? Protein synthesis by ribosomes Formation of the mitotic spindle during cell division ATP production in mitochondria Packaging of proteins by the Golgi apparatus None 60. Homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material during which precise sub-stage of meiosis I? Leptotene Zygotene Pachytene Diplotene None 61. If A = 20%, then C = ? according to Chargaff's rule. 10% 20% 30% 40% None 62. A student crosses two organisms having genotypes AaBb x AaBb and predicts the classical dihybrid phenotypic ratio. However, the genes are located very close together on the same chromosome. Which observation would most strongly suggest that the genes are linked rather than independently assorting? All four phenotypes occur in exactly equal numbers Only parental combinations are produced Parental combinations occur more frequently than recombinant combinations Dominant phenotypes completely disappear from the offspring None 63. Cutting off or breaking up the phosphodiester bond between sugar and phosphate without removal of nucleotides is done by: Helicase Endonuclease DNA ligase Topoisomerase None 64. What is the total chromosome count and sex chromosome makeup in an individual diagnosed with Klinefelter's syndrome? 45, XO 47, XXY 47, XY, +21 47, XXX None 65. The recessive trait in Mendel's pea experiment was: Yellow flower color Green pod color Yellow seed color Green seed color None 66. When an F1 hybrid is crossed with the homozygous recessive parent, it is called: Backcross Test cross Reciprocal cross Outcross None 67. During daytime, guard cell is _ as compared to subsidiary cells. Hypotonic Hypertonic Isotonic None None 68. In a photophosphorylation where the first electron donor is P700, product formed is: ATP only ATP, NADPH2 and O2 O2 only NADPH2 and ATP None 69. Which hormone induces the number of male flowers in a monoecious plant? GA Cytokinin ABA Ethylene None 70. A single turn of the citric acid cycle yields: 1 FADH2, 3 NADH2, 1 GTP 1 FADH2, 2 NADH2, 1 GTP 1 FADH2, 4 NADH2, 1 GTP 1 FADH2, 1 NADH2, 2 GTP None 71. Seed dormancy allows the plant to: Overcome unfavorable climatic condition Develop healthy seed Reduce viability Prevent deterioration of seeds None 72. During morning and evening transpiration is comparatively low. To remove excess water, guttation occurs. Guttation is a manifestation of: Root pressure Atmospheric pressure Vapour pressure Increased transpiration None 73. Which plant genus is characterized by having bicollateral vascular bundles with phloem on both sides of the xylem? Helianthus Cucurbita Bignonia Dracaena None 74. Which layer of cells in a dicot leaf contains the highest concentration of chloroplasts and is primarily responsible for photosynthesis? Spongy parenchyma Palisade parenchyma Upper epidermis Bundle sheath cells None 75. Secondary growth in dicot plants takes place due to: Formation of meristematic cells in vascular region Development of secondary medullary rays Thickening of vessels and tracheids Development in the division of meristematic cells in vascular and cortical region None 76. Pollen is transferred from one flower to another flower on the same plant. Although two flowers are involved, the pollen comes from the same individual. Which type of pollination is this? Autogamy Geitonogamy Xenogamy Hybridization None 77. Ovary in angiosperm is homologous to what in gymnosperm? Megasporophyll Megasporangium Cone Strobilus None 78. In which ovule do chalaza, funicle and micropyle lie in a straight line? Anatropous Orthotropous Atropous Both B and C None 79. A patient presents with fragile, bleeding gums and slow-healing wounds. Which vitamin deficiency is responsible for these impaired collagen symptoms? Vitamin K Vitamin A Vitamin D Vitamin C None 80. Plant breeding mainly aims to: Develop desirable traits Stop reproduction Reduce genetic variation Destroy genes None 81. Among the following, the pair that has different dimensions is: Planck's constant and angular momentum Impulse and linear momentum Angular momentum and force gradient Pressure and Young's modulus None 82. Three vectors satisfy A.B = 0 and A.C = 0. Then A is parallel to: B x C B.C C B None 83. Two balls, projected at 30 degrees and 60 degrees to the horizontal, strike the ground at the same distance. The ratio of the maximum heights attained by them is: 1:2 1:3 1:4 1:5 None 84. A stone projected vertically upwards from the ground reaches a maximum height h. When it is at a height 3h/4, the ratio of its kinetic and potential energies is: 3:4 1:3 4:3 3:1 None 85. The time period of a seconds pendulum is 2 seconds. The spherical bob, empty from inside, has a mass of 200 g. It is replaced by another solid bob of the same radius but mass 100 g. The new time period will be: 4 seconds 1 second 2 seconds 8 seconds None 86. Rate of flow of liquid through a horizontal pipe of length L and radius R is Q. The rate of flow of the same liquid through another pipe of length 2L and radius 2R is: 8Q 16Q 2Q 4Q None 87. The maximum speed with which a car can be driven round a curve of radius 18 m without skidding, when g = 10 m/s2 and coefficient of friction is 0.2, is: 6 km/hr 18 km/hr 21.6 km/hr 14.4 km/hr None 88. A satellite is orbiting around the Earth. By what percentage should we increase its velocity so as to enable it to escape away from Earth? 41.4% 34% 22% 76% None 89. Which of the following statement is true? g is the same at all places on the surface of Earth g has its maximum value at the equator g is less at Earth's surface than at height above it or a depth below it g is greater at the poles than at the equator None 90. A rod has constant cross-sectional area and is subjected to tensile loading. If the tensile force applied to the rod is increased, how does the ratio of its original length (L0) to its elongation (Delta L) change? It remains constant because Young's modulus is an intrinsic property of the material It increases proportionally with the applied force It decreases inversely with the applied force It decreases inversely with the square of the applied force None 91. At what temperature does the ratio between the readings in Celsius and Fahrenheit scale become 2:5? 22.85 °C 45.7°C 114.25°C 228.5°C None 92. When a column of mercury in a glass tube is heated, the length of the mercury column: Descends continuously Ascends continuously First descends and then ascends First ascends and then descends None 93. A bowl of soup takes 2 minutes to cool from 90 degrees C to 86 degrees C when room temperature is 60 degrees C. How long does it take to cool from 78 degrees C to 74 degrees C? 2.8 minutes 3.2 minutes 3.5 minutes 3.8 minutes None 94. A gas in a vessel expands with a decrease in internal energy. The process is: Reversible Irreversible Isothermal Adiabatic None 95. An ideal Carnot engine whose efficiency is 40% receives heat at 500 K. If its efficiency is 50%, then the intake temperature for the same exhaust temperature is: 600K 700K 800K 900K None 96. On a P-V graph, the correct relation about the steepness of slope of thermodynamic processes is: Isobaric > Adiabatic > Isothermal > Isochoric Isobaric > Isothermal > Adiabatic > Isochoric Isochoric > Adiabatic > Isothermal > Isobaric Isochoric > Isothermal > Adiabatic > Isobaric None 97. A bullet strikes a target with velocity 500 m/s and becomes dead. The rise in temperature if 40% energy is used as heat is, with specific heat capacity 0.03 cal/g degrees C: 396.8 degrees C 369.8 degrees C 384.6 degrees C 348.8 degrees C None 98. A tuning fork A of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/sec when sounded with another fork B of frequency 256 Hz. Fork A is loaded with wax and again 4 beats/sec are heard. The frequency of fork A is: 252 Hz 256 Hz 260 Hz 264 Hz None 99. A source and a listener are moving in the same direction with a velocity equal to half the velocity of sound. What is the change in frequency? 0% 100% 25% 50% None 100. A displacement wave is represented by y = 0.25 sin(500t - 0.025x), where y, t and x are in cm, second and meter respectively. What is the wavelength of the wave? 20 pi 40 pi 60 pi 80 pi None 101. A microscope is focused on a coin lying at the bottom of a beaker. The microscope is raised by 1 cm. To what depth should water be poured into the beaker so that the coin is again in focus? Refractive index of water = 4/3. 1 cm 4 cm 3 cm 4/3 cm None 102. In Young's double-slit experiment, the amplitudes of two sources are 3a and a respectively. The ratio of intensities of bright and dark fringes will be: 3:1 2:1 4:1 9:1 None 103. A prism is made up of a material of refractive index sqrt(3). The angle of prism is A. If the angle of minimum deviation is equal to the angle of prism, then the value of A is: 30 degrees 75 degrees 60 degrees 45 degrees None 104. The radius of curvature of the convex surface of a thin plano-convex lens is 15 cm and refractive index of its material is 1.6. The power of the lens will be: +4 D -2D +3D +1D None 105. The wavelength of light diminishes mu times (mu = 1.33 for water) in a medium. A diver from inside water looks at an object whose natural color is green. He sees the object as: Green Blue Yellow Red None 106. Two identical circular loops of metal wire are lying on a table without touching each other. Loop A carries a current which keeps increasing with time. Then loop B will: Remain stationary Be attracted by loop A Be repelled by loop A Rotate about its center of mass None 107. An infinitely long straight conductor is bent into the shape shown in the figure. It carries a current i amp and the radius of circular loop is r meter. The magnetic induction at the centre of the circular loop is: 0 Infinity mu0i(π + 1) / 2πr mu0i(π - 1) / 2r None 108. In the case of a bar magnet, the lines of magnetic induction: Start from the north pole and end at the south pole Run continuously through the bar and outside it Emerge in circular paths from the middle of the bar Are produced only at the north pole like rays of light from a bulb None 109. Work done in rotating a bar magnet of magnetic moment M through an angle theta from equilibrium position in a magnetic field B is: MB cos theta MB sin theta MB(1 - cos theta) MB(1 - sin theta) None 110. The neutral temperature of a thermocouple is 120 degrees C. Its electromotive force changes sign at 400 K. The temperature of the cold junction will be: 93 degrees C 73 degrees C 67 degrees C 113 degrees C None 111. In the combination of resistances shown in the figure, the potential difference between B and D is zero when the unknown resistance x is: 4 ohm 2 ohm 3 ohm EMF of cell is required None 112. A battery with negligible internal resistance is connected with a 10 m long wire. A standard cell gets balanced on 600 cm length of this wire. On increasing the length of potentiometer wire by 2 m, the null point will be displaced by: 200 cm 120 cm 720 cm 600 cm None 113. To send 10% of the main current through a moving-coil galvanometer of resistance 99 ohm, the shunt required is: 11 ohm 10 ohm 9.9 ohm 9 ohm None 114. A choke coil is used in an AC circuit to reduce current without significant power loss. Which of the following is the main reason for this? It has very high resistance and high inductance It offers high inductive reactance but negligible resistance It converts AC into DC None 115. A charge Q is placed at each of two opposite corners of a square. A charge q is placed at each of the other two corners. If the resultant force on Q is zero, then: Q = sqrt(2)q Q = -sqrt(2)q Q = 2sqrt(2)q None of the above None 116. A 5 microfarad capacitor is fully charged across a 12 V battery. It is then disconnected from the battery and connected to an uncharged capacitor. If the voltage across the capacitor becomes 3 V, the capacitance of the uncharged capacitor is: 3 microfarad 15 microfarad 25 microfarad 60 microfarad None 117. The electric field due to a point charge at a distance R from it is E. If the same charge is placed on a metallic sphere of radius R, the electric field on the surface of the sphere will be: 0 E/2 E 2E None 118. A parallel-plate capacitor is charged. If the plates are pulled apart: The potential difference increases The capacitance increases The total charge increases The charge and the potential difference remain the same None 119. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because: Atoms are ionized at high temperature Molecules break up at high temperature Nuclei break up at high temperature Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion at high temperature None 120. The number of atoms of a radioactive substance at t = 0 is 8 x 10^4. Its half-life period is 3 years. The number of atoms left undecayed will be 1 x 10^4 after an interval of: 6 years 8 years 9 years 24 years None 121. In Thomson's experiment for determination of e/m of electrons, the electric field E, magnetic field B, and electron velocity v are mutually perpendicular. If the electron moves undeflected, then v equals: E²/B E/B² E/B B/E None 122. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a metal surface. If the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled, the photoelectric current becomes: Halved One-fourth Zero Quadrupled None 123. If an electron jumps from fourth excited state to the second excited state, the number of emission transitions between these states will be: 6 4 3 2 None 124. A Zener diode is also a p-n junction diode. It can be used as a/an: Full-wave rectifier AC voltage regulator DC voltage regulator Half-wave rectifier None 125. The cause of the potential barrier in a p-n diode is: Depletion of positive charges near the junction Depletion of negative charges near the junction Concentration of positive charges near the junction Concentration of positive and negative charges near the junction None 126. In a p-n junction diode: The current in the reverse-biased condition is generally very small The current in reverse-biased condition is small but the forward-biased current is independent of bias voltage The reverse-biased current is strongly dependent on the applied bias voltage The forward-biased current is very small in comparison to reverse current None 127. The figure represents: NOR gate OR gate NAND gate NOT gate None 128. X-rays are produced in an X-ray tube operating at a given acceleration voltage. The wavelength of the continuous X-rays has values from: 0 to infinity Lambda-min to infinity, where lambda-min > 0 0 to lambda-max, where lambda-max < infinity Lambda-max to infinity, where 0 < lambda-max < infinity None 129. The spectrum of light from a distant galaxy is shifted toward the red end. This indicates that the galaxy is: Moving toward Earth Moving away from Earth Stationary with respect to Earth Rotating around Earth None 130. Which seismic waves generally cause the greatest damage to buildings? P-waves S-waves Surface waves Radio waves None 131. 128 g of a compound contains 48 g of carbon, 16 g of hydrogen, and the rest oxygen. The empirical formula of the compound is: CH4O C2H6O2 C3H6O CH2O None 132. Sulphur forms two chlorides SCl2 and S2Cl2. If the equivalent mass of sulphur in SCl2 is 16, then the equivalent mass of sulphur in S2Cl2 is: 8 64 16 32 None 133. Calculate the number of H2O molecules in a drop of water weighing 0.036 g. 1 x 10^-3 NA 2 x 10^-3 NA 1 x 10^-2 NA 2 x 10^-2 NA None 134. Arrange the following elements in decreasing order of second ionization energy: Li, Be, Ne, C, B. Ne > B > Li > C > Be Li > Ne > C > B > Be Ne > C > B > Be > Li Li > Ne > B > C > Be None 135. If nitrogen atom had electronic configuration 1s7, it would have energy lower than that of normal ground-state configuration because electrons would be closer to the nucleus; yet 1s7 is not observed because it violates: Heisenberg uncertainty principle Hund's rule Pauli exclusion principle Bohr postulate of stationary orbits None 136. What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds in which a water molecule can participate? 1 2 3 4 None 137. What is the equivalent weight of KMnO4 in this medium? 2KMnO4 + H2O -> 2MnO2 + 2KOH + 3[O] 31.6 52.66 158 39.5 None 138. What weight of a piece of chalk containing 80% CaCO3 is required to reduce the strength of 100 mL of N/10 HCl to N/100 HCl? 0.45 g 0.56 g 0.64 g 0.71 g None 139. Equal masses of methane and ethane are mixed in an empty vessel at 25 degrees C. The fraction of pressure exerted by ethane is: 1/2 2/3 8/23 4/23 None 140. Pratik, a chemist from Khotang, went to Everest base camp and tried to boil water. He noticed that water boiled much quicker than when he used to boil it at lower altitudes. Why does water boil faster at higher altitudes? At high altitude, atmospheric pressure is decreased At high altitude, atmospheric pressure is increased A larger flame is used at high altitudes Pressure has no role in boiling point None 141. In which of the following equilibrium reactions is Kp > Kc? N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) PCl5(g) 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) None 142. Solubility product of a salt AB is 1 x 10^-8 in a solution in which concentration of A+ ions is 10^-3 M. The salt will precipitate when the concentration of B- ions is: Between 10^-8 M and 10^-9 M Between 10^-6 M and 10^-8 M Greater than 10^-5 M Less than 10^-5 M None 143. For the reaction 2NO(g) + O2(g) -> 2NO2(g), volume is suddenly reduced to half its value by increasing pressure. If the reaction is first order with respect to O2 and second order with respect to NO, the rate of reaction will: Diminish to one-fourth of its initial value Diminish to one-eighth of its initial value Increase to eight times its initial value Increase to four times its initial value None 144. Calculate Ecell for the reaction: Zn(s) + Cu2+ -> Zn2+ + Cu(s) E° Zn2+/Zn = -0.76 V, E° Cu2+/Cu = +0.34 V +1.10 V -1.10 V +0.42 V -0.42 V None 145. Which of the following statements is correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas? Delta S is negative and therefore Delta H should be highly positive Delta S is negative and therefore Delta H should be highly negative Delta S is positive and therefore Delta H should be negative Delta S is positive and therefore Delta H should also be highly positive None 146. Hydrolysis of the salt formed from a strong acid and a weak base is called: Cationic hydrolysis Anionic hydrolysis Neutral hydrolysis Amphoteric hydrolysis None 147. The number of neutrons in the parent nucleus which gives N-14 on beta emission would be: 6 7 8 14 None 148. Some statements about heavy water are given below. i. Heavy water is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors. ii. Heavy water is more associated than ordinary water. iii. Heavy water is a more effective solvent than ordinary water. Which of the above statements are correct? (i) and (ii) (i), (ii), and (iii) (ii) and (iii) (i) and (iii) None 149. Which metal gives H2 gas even in very dilute HNO3? Mg Al Zn Fe None 150. Lithopone is a mixture of: ZnCO3 and BaCO3 ZnS and Na2SO4 ZnSO4 and BaSO4 ZnS and BaSO4 None 151. Select the incorrect statement about ozone. It is used for the preservation of meat in cold storages It gives blue color with KI and starch solution It forms resonating structures It is lighter than air None 152. When Cl2 gas is passed through hot and concentrated NaOH, we get: NaCl only NaClO and NaCl NaClO3 and NaCl NaClO4 and NaCl None 153. In Down's process, NaCl is fused with CaCl2 to: Decrease the ionization of NaCl Increase the ionization of NaCl Decrease the melting point of NaCl Increase the melting point of NaCl None 154. The correct order of increasing thermal stability of K2CO3, MgCO3, CaCO3 and BeCO3 is: K2CO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BeCO3 BeCO3 < MgCO3 < K2CO3 < CaCO3 BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3 MgCO3 < BeCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3 None 155. Which ore is not concentrated by froth flotation method? Galena Zinc blende Cinnabar Bauxite None 156. Transition elements are frequently used as catalysts because: Of their large size They provide large surface area for adsorption of reactants Of vacant d-orbitals Both B and C are correct None 157. The trace metal present in insulin is: Iron Cobalt Zinc Manganese None 158. The most suitable method of separation of a 1:1 mixture of o- and p-nitrophenols is: Sublimation Chromatography Crystallization Steam distillation None 159. Lassaigne's test for the detection of nitrogen fails in: H2NCONHNH2.HCl H2NNH2.HCl HNCONH2 C6H5NHNH2.HCl None 160. In the contact process, the final product is: H2SO4 H2S2O7 HNO3 NH3 None 161. The dyes which are applied to fabric in the colorless reduced state and then oxidized to colored state are called: Vat dyes Disperse dyes Azo dyes Triphenylmethane dyes None 162. The intermediate formed during urea synthesis is: Ammonium carbamate Ammonium carbonate Urea nitrate Biuret None 163. Ziegler-Natta catalyst contains one of the metals as: Rb Pt Ti Na None 164. In the molecule CH3-CH=CH-O-CH3, the atoms numbered as CH3-(1)CH=(2)CH-O-(3)CH3 have which hybridization? (1) sp3, (2) sp2, (3) sp2 (1) sp2, (2) sp2, (3) sp3 (1) sp2, (2) sp3, (3) sp2 (1) sp3, (2) sp3, (3) sp2 None 165. Which of the following hydrocarbons has the lowest octane number? 2,2,4-Trimethylpentane (isooctane) n-Octane 2-Methylheptane 2,2-Dimethylhexane None 166. Which of the following does not show tautomerism? CH3COCH3 (CH3)3C-CH=NO2 (CH3)3C-NO2 C6H5-CH2-NO2 None 167. Which of the following aromatic rings is most deactivated toward nucleophilic aromatic substitution? Nitrobenzene,benzene,anisoleor phenol Nitrobenzene Benzene Anisole Phenol None 168. Which of the following alkenes gives acetone as the only organic product on ozonolysis? 2-Methyl-2-butene 2-Methylpropene 2-Butene 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene None 169. Chloroform (CHCl3) reacts with which compound to form chlorotone (chlorobutanol), a substance formerly used as hypnotic and sedative drug? Ethanol Acetone Methanal Acetic acid None 170. The IUPAC name of CH3-O-CH2-CH2-O-CH3 is: 1,2-Dimethoxyethane 1,1-Dimethoxyethane 1,4-Dimethoxybutane 1,2-Dimethoxybutane None 171. A halogen (-X) substituent on a benzene ring: Deactivates the ring; ortho/para-directing Deactivates the ring; meta-directing Activates the ring; ortho/para-directing Activates the ring; meta-directing None 172. When ethanol is heated with concentrated H2SO4 at 140 degrees C, the major product formed is: CH2=CH2 CH3CHO C2H5-O-C2H5 CH3COOH None 173. Which of the following does not give the NaHCO3 test, with no effervescence of CO2? Picric acid Benzoic acid Acetic acid derivative shown Phenol None 174. Williamson's ether synthesis occurs by which mechanism? Electrophilic substitution Electrophilic addition Nucleophilic addition Nucleophilic substitution None 175. Benzene reacts with CH3COCl in the presence of AlCl3 to form: Toluene Phenol Acetophenone Chlorobenzene None 176. Which of the following compounds is obtained by Perkin's reaction? C6H5CH2OH C6H5COOH C6H5CH=CHCOOH C6H5COCH3 None 177. A primary alcohol on oxidation with acidified potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7/H+) gives: Ketone Aldehyde Carboxylic acid Ether None 178. In order to isolate azoxybenzene as the chief reduction product of nitrobenzene, the suitable reagent should be: Alkaline sodium arsenite Alkaline glucose solution Both A and B Alcoholic sodium stannite None 179. Which of the following is most basic? C6H5NH2 CH3NH2 C6H5NO2 NH3 None 180. Which of the following gives primary alcohol with Grignard reagent? Methanal Ethanal Propanal Butanal None 181. A and B can do a piece of work in 45 days and 40 days respectively. They begin the work together, but A leaves after some days and B completes the remaining work in 23 days. The total number of days taken to complete the work is: 32 23 34 65 None 182. Fifteen years hence, a man will be four times as old as he was 15 years ago. His present age is: 10 year 20 year 15 years 25 years None 183. From a point P on level ground, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 30 degrees. If the tower is 100 m high, the distance of P from the foot of the tower is: 149m 156m 173m 200m None 184. Rs. 20,000 is deposited at 10% per annum, compounded half-yearly, for one year. The amount is: Rs. 21,000 Rs. 22,000 Rs. 22,050 Rs. 22,100 None 185. The average age of 24 boys and their teacher is 15 years. When the teacher's age is excluded, the average age decreases by 1 year. The age of the teacher is: 38 years 40 years 39 years 41 years None 186. Rasika walks 20 m north. She then turns right and walks 30 m. Then she turns right and walks 35 m. She then turns left and walks 15 m. How far east or west is she from her original position? 15 m west 30 m east 30 m west 45 m east None 187. Pointing to a photograph, Rahul said, "The woman in this photograph is the wife of the only son of my grandfather. The man standing beside her is the father of my sister." If Rahul's father has no brother, how is the woman related to Rahul? Mother Sister Grandmother Great-grandmother None 188. Seven students A, B, C, D, E, F and G are ranked according to their marks. A scores more than F but less than B. D scores less than C but more than E. F scores more than B, while G scores less than E. Who scores third from the top? A B C D None 189. In a certain code, "BOOK" is written as "CPPL" and "PEN" is written as "QFO". How will "PAPER" be written? QBQFS QBOER OZODQ RRCGT None 190. Four students A, B, C and D have different heights. A is taller than B. C is shorter than B but taller than D. If arranged from tallest to shortest, who will be third? A B C D None 191. In a final result of MBBS, Saurav ranked sixteenth from the top and twenty-ninth from the bottom among those who passed the examination. Six boys did not participate in the competition and five failed. How many boys were there in the class? 40 44 50 55 None 192. A B C D None 193. Arrange in correct order in logical sequence: 1. College 2. Child 3. Salary 4. School 5. Employment 1,2,4,3,5 2,4,1,5,3 4,1,3,5,2 5,3,2,1,4 None 194. Fill in the blanks: _aba__ba_ab abab abbab baabb bbaba None 195. The relation between anxiety, intelligence and strength is best represented by: Three concentric circles Three separate circles Three partly overlapping circles Two overlapping circles with one separate circle None 196. A B C D None 197. During sunrise, a person faces toward the pole and the shadow falls to the left of the person. In which direction is the person facing? North South East West None 198. A B C D None 199. A B C D None 200. A B C D None
